What is the actual story behind the Ashkenazi way of pronunciation? I am uncertain as to whether Ashkenazim consider their form of pronunciation older than Sephardi, just an alternative, or... Any help greatly appreciated!

The question, in summary: is there historical evidence to support that either Ashkenazi or Sephardi pronunciation is more related to the form of Hebrew Moshe used?

closed as too broad by DanF, Double AA Jan 26 '15 at 20:26

Please edit the question to limit it to a specific problem with enough detail to identify an adequate answer. Avoid asking multiple distinct questions at once. See the How to Ask page for help clarifying this question. If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

  • 1
    I think you'll find that, just like all schemes of pronunciation, the two traditions have a common ancestor and the same amount of time evolving. Is this question about the "actual story" or how Ashkenazim consider it? It seems to be two different questions. – Charles Koppelman Jan 26 '15 at 19:57
  • Someone who thought there weren't enough S sounds already decided to make the taf also be one.. I don't know. – CashCow Jan 27 '15 at 10:47
  • 1
    This article, "The Phonology of Ashkenazic" is excerpted from the book Hebrew in Ashkenaz: A Language in Exile. The book has several relevant articles by various authors, but this particular chapter by Dovid Katz is specifically about the sound of the language and what phonological shifts happened over time. He is a respected scholar of the history of both Yiddish and Ashkenazic Hebrew. Regarding what Moses spoke, no one today speaks it, although Yemeni or Iraqi Hebrew may be close since they use certain consonants that Europeans do not. – Mike Jan 27 '15 at 11:21
  • It might be interesting to note that in Old German, "th" is pronounced "s." – ezra Mar 30 '17 at 22:02