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From this week's sedra (Shmot 16:35):

And the children of Israel did eat the manna forty years, until they came to a land inhabited; they did eat the manna, until they came unto the borders of the land of Canaan

However at the time, the Israelites had not sinned with the incident of the spies, as this would happen on the 9th of Av on the 2nd year, so 1 year and 3 months later approximately. And so the manna would only originally have been for this period of time?

Was Moshe told to "edit in" this posuk later?

marked as duplicate by sabbahillel, Y     e     z, Monica Cellio Jan 27 '15 at 4:13

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  • The case in B'reishit in some ways "does not count" as the Torah was not given until Har Sinai by which time Sodom and G'morah had been destroyed. However the 40 years incident happened after Har Sinai. – CashCow Jan 26 '15 at 12:05
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    @CashCow The Man incident happened before Har Sinai too. – Double AA Jan 26 '15 at 14:39
  • Yes but not the incident that caused them to continue receiving it for 40 years. We assume they had freewill when it came to the spies and had they not sinned Moshe would have led them in on or just after Tisha B'Av in the 2nd year. Tisha B'Av would probably never have become a fast day. – CashCow Jan 26 '15 at 15:04
  • I think that the exact same question has been asked before, but I cannot find it at the moment. – sabbahillel Jan 27 '15 at 1:41
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Since Moshe Rabbeinu wrote a sefer Torah for each shevet just before he died, the pasuk could have been dictated for inclusion at that time. This is similar to the reason why other things that happened after the time they are included are found where they are.

I wrote about this in Who wrote the verse near the end of the story about Mahn in Shmot 16:35?

Also note that the Pasuk of the 40 years (Shmos 16:35) is before the sin of the meraglim when the 40 years in the desert was decreed. Thus, it could not have been put in until after the chait hameraglim in the first place.

The statement about the mann could have been dictated when Moshe Rabbeinu wrote the entire Torah just before he died. Thus, since the man was now scheduled to stop immediately thereafter, Moshe Rabbeinu would have been able to write it as part of the final dictation without any problem.

  • Isn't this a duplicate question? Why didn't you vote to close? – Double AA Jan 27 '15 at 1:56
  • @DoubleAA I had looked at the answer and thought that the main question was about the last eight pesukim. Now that I look at it again, I see that you are correct and will vote to close as a duplicate. – sabbahillel Jan 27 '15 at 2:12
  • @sabbahillel the question has now been closed as a duplicate. – Monica Cellio Jan 27 '15 at 4:14

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