אָנֹכִי יְ־הֹוָ־ה אֱלֹהֶיךָ אֲשֶׁר הוֹצֵאתִיךָ מֵאֶרֶץ מִצְרַיִם מִבֵּית עֲבָדִים Why does it say both מִצְרַיִם then בֵּית עֲבָדִים seems to be the same thing to me?
asked Jan 16, 2011 at 23:37
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2 Answers
This question is asked by the Ohr HaChayim HaKodosh, and he answers that it is to show the difficulty of the enslavement. They were both physically and spiritually enslaved and Hashem took the Jews out from both.
answered Jan 17, 2011 at 0:02
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1Ok, why does this language indicate that and how is it that physically and spiritually are implied in אֶרֶץ מִצְרַיִם or בֵּית עֲבָדִים Jan 17, 2011 at 0:10
If it said only "מִבֵּית עֲבָדִים" it would not be saying which land it is. If it just said "מֵאֶרֶץ מִצְרַיִם", how would I know that Mitzrayim is identified as the archetypal and quintessential "House of Slavery"?
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so say it the other way around say Mitzrayim and the Torah already described our slavery there Jan 16, 2011 at 23:52
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Our slavery there does not tell us that "Mitzrayim is identified as the archetypal and quintessential 'House of Slavery'" of the entire world and its history.– YahuJan 17, 2011 at 0:29