If someone eats a mixture of meat and milk, does he need to wait before eating more meat or milk?

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    Why would you assume that he doesn't have to go lechumra and wait 6 hours (or wtvr shitta one follows) he ate both so now wait both times
    – sam
    Commented Jan 20, 2015 at 1:08
  • Similar: judaism.stackexchange.com/q/12169
    – msh210
    Commented Jan 25, 2015 at 6:12
  • Interesting note that may be relevant to some answers: if it's real Basar v'chalav - meaning kosher meat cooked with kosher dairy, it is isur d'oraita and also isur b'hana (forbidden to derive benefit from it). Anything that is isur b'hana also has no shiur (sukkah 31b), so you ate less than a shiur of basar b'chalav no matter what. (However you do have to wait after eating less than a shiur of meat). Commented Oct 29, 2015 at 21:23
  • Yes per Rav Belsky,someone asked him on my behalf
    – sam
    Commented Jan 14, 2016 at 16:08

1 Answer 1


It depends if the meat in the meat/milk mixture is kosher or not

If the meat is from a non-kosher animal then one can eat milk afterwards. Many poskim hold that non-kosher meat is not subject to the meat/milk prohibition. See for instance here on MY quoting the Shach, Taz and Baer Hetev

If the meat is from a nveila or treifa (forbidden meat from a kosher animal), there is a dispute between the Rashba (who forbids it) and the Rambam (who permits it). Since this is a Torah prohibition one should be strict. See here and here for details (this has practical relevance to know what one can feed once pets) -- thanks to @kouty for pointing out this important distinction

If the meat is kosher then one has to wait the full period before eating more milk because one is "meaty", see R Binyomin Forst here (p. 131) who writes

One who, in error, ate even a large amount of dairy before the end of the six-hour period has not changed his status and must wait the remainder of the six-hour period before eating any additional dairy food. There is no basis for the common misconception that once one eats dairy, he is no longer affected by the meat meal

I heard two reasons from two rabbanim I asked

  • food has no "fourth status" beyond bassari, halavi and parve, i.e., a mixture of milk/meat is both bassari and halavi
  • there might be traces of meat left in the mouth which is one of the reasons one waits between meat and milk.

See also R Ovadia Yosef in Halachos Olam cited here which also says the Kaf Hachaim allows more milk for Ashkenazim but I couldn't find another posek that rules like him.

One can eat more meat after rinsing one's mouth and hands according to many authorities (but not Chabad, and unless one ate meat and hard cheese.)

As always CYLOR if you need a practical ruling in a specific situation.

  • I don't see any evidence of R Ovadia Yosef discussing eating basar bechalav in that link. I can't check R Forst as I don't have that book handy, but perhaps you should edit in a page number if you can to make it easier for others to check in that book)
    – Double AA
    Commented Feb 9, 2016 at 14:38
  • Thank you for following up. Now that I see the source I know I can downvote. It doesn't address the question at all, which asked about meat-milk-mixtures, not meat and then later milk.
    – Double AA
    Commented Feb 11, 2016 at 6:26
  • Regarding whether their mixture has a status different from meat and milk separately, see this Mi Yodeya question: judaism.stackexchange.com/q/52861/759 (ie I don't know for sure either, but assuming one side doesn't help us find the answer)
    – Double AA
    Commented Feb 11, 2016 at 6:28
  • Hmmm. Logic would be that a mixture of kosher meat and milk is like meat and milk. But I will bn check tomorrow with my two Friday maggidei shiur. I thought you knew it was different
    – mbloch
    Commented Feb 11, 2016 at 6:31
  • I don't know what logic you are applying. Consider my comment to sam above.
    – Double AA
    Commented Feb 11, 2016 at 6:33

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