2

I know that a mahpach not followed by a pashto is called a yetiv and has a different sound.

What about mahpach psik pashto, as in Shmuel Alef 19:9?

Would the mahpach there be read as connected to the pashto, and as such is a mahpach, or is it disconnected, and is a yetiv?

  • @DoubleAA I don't see that in the pasuk you mentioned. But i did find the spot i originally saw it, and put that in. – Scimonster Jan 13 '15 at 9:12
  • Oops that was supposed to be 8:15 not 8:5. Can you perhaps link instead to a site that displays the trop? – Double AA Jan 13 '15 at 9:31
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Let me explain a bit about the Yetiv.

A Yetiv is grammatically equivalent to a Pashta (3rd order disjunctive like Revi'i). It replaces Pashta on words with the accent on the opening syllable which do not have any assistants (words immediately prior with conjunctive accents). (This latter condition is similar to how Zakef Katan becomes Zakef Gadol and Segol becomes Shalshelet.)

Its symbol is the same as Mahpach's and it can be spotted by its placement just prior to the word it's on. (This is like how Pashta and Kadma have the same symbol but are distinguished by placement.)

You don't usually see a Yetiv preceding a Pashta because when in a sequence of adjacent Pashtas (ie. 3rd order disjuntcs) the first usually converts into a Revi'i. There are two instances in Torah (Vayikra 5:2 and Devarim 1:4) where there would be three Pashtas in a row, with the middle one being accented on its opening syllable. In this case, the first one becomes a Revi'i as usual and the second becomes a Yetiv as usual, resulting in the unusual formation of Yetiv followed by Pashta (confusing, as it looks remarkably like a standard Mahpach-Pashta combo).

There is no reason a Pesik should be relevant to these situations, so your case is a regular Mahpach-Pashta with a small pause in between.

  • "the first usually converts into a Revi'i" It may be more formal to say that in a sequence of adjacent Revi'is the latter ones convert to Pashtas. No big deal for us here though – Double AA Jan 12 '15 at 23:58
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I understand that a psik is a "rest", i.e., it is unsounded trope. I am unaware of any instance where there is a psik between a mapach and pashta, as these 2 notes, I believe, are connected and are a group. AFAIK, a psik should not change the manner of cantillation other than to cause a pause (nice rhyme, huh?) If you can link to where you saw a psik betweena mapach and pashtah, that would help.

  • Shmuel Alef 19:9. I just edited that in. – Scimonster Jan 13 '15 at 9:14
  • Perhaps consider deleting this now that the q has been edited? – Double AA Nov 18 '15 at 19:36

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