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I have noticed in many kehillot, that the sha"tz will begin the Mi-Shebeirach before musaf (Hu y'varech et kol hakahal) at "(U)Mi she-oskim". At first, I thought that this was probably an oversight introduced at some point by a composer, however, I noticed a few weeks ago that sefer haminhagim for Harvard Hillel Orthodox Minyan (where I often daven) says specifically to start at that later point.

On the other hand, the nusach which I have received from my father, who often serves as a ba'al hamusaf and whose father, z"l, was a chazzan, is to begin at the beginning of the tefillah.

If this was a case of the standard practice of ending a tefillah aloud only, it would likely begin "v'yishlach b'rachah", much as the passages of Yekum Purkan are typically ended with the last lines, "maran di vish'maya."

What are the reasons for this machloket?

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    He begins there or he begins reciting out loud at that point? – Daniel Dec 24 '14 at 0:17
  • @Daniel I assume the latter, although seeing as it's said silently, the former may be true. – Noach MiFrankfurt Dec 24 '14 at 1:24
  • I recommend that you ask around at the Harvard Hillel Orthodox Minyan regarding the choices recorded in their book. There is probably a specific reason for each item. In general, though, Chazanim recite only the last part of many prayers aloud, and this could easily be simply an instance of that. – Isaac Moses Dec 24 '14 at 2:53
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    If you're questioning this practice based on a received nusach and the form of the prayer, I recommend you edit that info into the question, so you don't get answers like "usually the leader starts aloud partway through, not reciting the whole aloud". – msh210 Dec 24 '14 at 3:52
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    I still don't really understand the question. Why is it surprising that not everybody does it exactly the same way as your father? – Daniel Dec 24 '14 at 5:42

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