Yevamoth 66a discusses certain rules pertaining to ownership and legal rights that can be passed down or up the chain of ownership (eg., whether an 'Eved - slave - owned by the wife of a Kohen may eat Terumah).

One case under discussion is the status of an 'Eved owned by an 'Eved. But how can this be? If an 'Eved is able to save enough money to buy himself an 'Eved, why isn't he forced to turn over those funds to his master to repay his debts and obtain his own freedom?

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    Maybe the other Eved is cheaper? Also, can you edit in why you might think we would force him to buy his freedom? What if he loves his master, his wife and his sons and he doesn't want to go free?
    – Double AA
    Dec 11, 2014 at 4:40
  • @DoubleAA I thought of a value discrepancy, but even so, I would think that an 'Eved is a big-ticket item, so you'd think that any earnings the 'Eved has that are that significant would end up in his owner's hands, no? Rashi has an answer, I believe. Looking into it.
    – Seth J
    Dec 11, 2014 at 14:22
  • @DoubleAA, got time to go down the Tosafoth rabbit hole? I'm not sure I do.
    – Seth J
    Dec 11, 2014 at 14:25
  • @DoubleAA, back to your original question, at the very least, I'd expect him to have to forward his earnings to his owner, since he is, after all, supposed to be earning money for him.
    – Seth J
    Dec 11, 2014 at 16:04
  • The bigger issue isn't how the eved did it, but now that he has, why doesn't the second eved belong to the master, since mah shekanah eved kanah rabbo.
    – DonielF
    Aug 24, 2016 at 3:44

1 Answer 1


Someone can be made Eved to pay back for something when he has no money, not necessarily bought with money.

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