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Is it permissible to consume something hot from milk dishes if one is still fleishig from a meat meal?

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    It would greatly improve the question if you would edit in the motivation and why you think it might be. – Scimonster Dec 8 '14 at 14:59
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    opposite judaism.stackexchange.com/q/34562/759 – Double AA Dec 8 '14 at 15:23
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    You mean something parve that's on milk dishes, I assume? – Monica Cellio Dec 8 '14 at 17:28
  • @MonicaCellio the checkmark (below) would seem to imply as much. (The other way to read this question would be with "dishes" meaning "quiche and the like", but I didn't think of that before answering.) – msh210 Dec 8 '14 at 19:50
  • It may be even permissible to eat the pareve food which was cooked in a pot which was not used 24 hours with a milky food together with meat kosharot.co.il/ask_print.asp?id=13244 For ashkenazim it is not allowed to plan itbut for sfaradim it is allowed to plan it. – David Michael Gang Dec 8 '14 at 20:09
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One who ate meat may eat pareve food [=neither meat nor dairy] that was cooked in a clean milchig [=dairy] pot after finishing the meat.

the Star-K, citing Rabbi Aharon Kotler

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