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Rashi on bereshis 24:23 says "לין שם דבר." ie. "lin" is a noun. How does that fit in the context considering that Eliezer was asking for a place to "lodge". Even though lodge can be a noun, in this context it would seem a verb.

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  • Welcome again, and I hope to see you around! Thanks for the question :-)
    – MTL
    Commented Nov 11, 2014 at 22:36
  • So your question is that Rashi's explanation doesn't seem to fit in with the English translation?
    – msh210
    Commented Nov 11, 2014 at 22:36
  • hebrewbooks.org/pagefeed/hebrewbooks_org_38046_34.pdf
    – Yishai
    Commented Nov 11, 2014 at 22:37
  • Yishai, if I am understanding your link to Dikdukei Rashi correctly, not all agree with Rashi. Nonetheless how do we explain Rashi's view? Especially with the prefix ל - "to" lin? Commented Nov 11, 2014 at 23:04
  • Shmuel -- tip for you: if you want to make sure that someone sees your response to their comments, write their username, preceded by the @ symbol....I'm not sure that @Yishai saw your response.
    – MTL
    Commented Nov 11, 2014 at 23:09

1 Answer 1

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He asked: "is there a place for a spend-the-night." Lin is a noun. It means "one night's lodgings."

She replied: "there is a place to lodge." Lun is a verb, "to lodge."

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  • Thank you. If so, shouldn't "mokom lanu lolin" be all the same noun? Is that what you mean? If so why does Rashi say that only "lin" is a noun? Commented Nov 11, 2014 at 23:27
  • @ShmuelNavi, "makom" is clearly a noun. The point is that "lin" is a noun. "A place for A NIGHT'S SLEEP." Compare: "do we have a place in our house for A PIANO?" [noun], vs. "do we have a place in our house for PLAYING MUSIC?" [verb -- well, gerund, but close enough].
    – Shalom
    Commented Nov 12, 2014 at 1:15

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