I have often heard "drashot" or homiletic interpretations of many verses in the torah. How do we know that the torah can be explained in a non-literal way beyond the non-literal explanations found in the talmud and its contemporary literature such as midrash. Meaning, if a certain drasha of a pasuk is not found in the gemarah or midrash can a person simply make it up on his own? If not what are the parameters for creating a non-literal interpretation?
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Related/answer: judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/10868/…– YishaiOct 27, 2014 at 20:37
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@Yishai I believe those are ways to expound the torah logically/halachically, not morally/homiletically– user6641Oct 27, 2014 at 21:06
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See point (c) in Alex's answer there, quoted from a Ba'al Tosefos.– YishaiOct 27, 2014 at 21:08
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Why would we need to be allowed to do so?– Tamir EvanJan 14, 2015 at 16:54
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I am not aware of any rabbinic figure who has expressed a view that the biblical text only carries one level of meaning. It seems to have been the universal concencus that text carries multiple levels of meanings, thus justifying further post-talmudic exegesis. Furthermore, the raelm of drash can be used as a mere medium to convey information, even if one does not believe that it is the intent of the verse at all.– mevaqeshAug 18, 2015 at 21:29
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