Can one person be given one name (as opposed to a double name) which is meant to "correspond" to two different deceased individuals?

I.e. Chaim and Shprintza have a daughter. Chaim's grandmother was named Genendel and Shprintza's grandmother was named Genendel. Can their daughter be named Genendel after both?

I am asking if this "works" to whatever extent naming after someone "works." I am not asking if it is allowed, because I assume that there is no reason it wouldn't be allowed.

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  • Reminds me of the Chelm story of a husband and wife having the same argument. Answer, name the baby and see which one she resembles as she grows up. I once saw a comment from Rabbi Avigdor Miller, just don't tell the relatives which one and let them think what they want. The case was naming a baby after a tzadik and letting the relatives think it was after someone on "their" side. – sabbahillel Oct 20 '14 at 9:33
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    @sabbahillel If you can source your R' Miller comment, it would be evidence that he held it doesn't "work" – Y     e     z Oct 20 '14 at 14:52

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