Let's say a person was unable to daven Shachris for a relatively legitimate reason, and finds himself in the afternoon, where he's now supposed to daven mincha twice.

What of the prohibition of eating before davening? My gut tells me that this person is prohibited from eating until he davens mincha, but I'd like to see it discussed. Does it matter whether or not the person is able to daven tashlumim or not (as in, if he missed shachris be'maizid [on purpose])?

  • 1
    Consider also the case where s/he was an Onen(et) till noon.
    – Double AA
    Oct 5, 2014 at 1:47
  • @DoubleAA When I was an Onein until too late to daven Shacharis, I was allowed to eat during that period. We then davened mincha as soon as possible after the levaya so that eating before mincha did not come up. The question implies that the reason for not davening shacharis also prevented the OP from eating as well. Otherwise, there would be no reason for asking about eating. Oct 5, 2014 at 2:49
  • @saba I see no such implication in the question. Also I dont know why you think having eaten previously whether behetter or beissur affects the prohibition.
    – Double AA
    Oct 5, 2014 at 2:51
  • 1
    @sabahillel I don't think the two are connected, even if one was allowed to eat previously, perhaps there is a prohibition to eat that begins once there's a chiyuv tefillah, which didn't exist in the morning Oct 5, 2014 at 3:41
  • 3
    What about the prohibition to eat before mincha of its own accord? (Sh'a 232 2)?
    – user6591
    Feb 5, 2016 at 18:16

1 Answer 1


If someone woke up very late and missed davening Shacharit he may not eat until he davens mincha. [Mayan Omer v. 1 p. 157] (Source)

I would imagine that the same applies in a case where there was a different reason as to why one missed Shacharit.

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