Why is Ashkenazi sta"m sofer referred to as Beit Yosef? Typically, the term refers to the seminal masterpiece written by the Mechaber, a Sephardi authority: so what gives?
1 Answer
The truth is that the Sefardim in this instance actually do not follow the opinions of the Beit Yosef, but rather the local customs of each city, or alternatively the opinion of the Chida in Birkei Yosef. The Ashkenazim on the other hand, do generally follow the Beis Yosef, with minor changes brought by the Darkei Moshe, Mishna Berura and Keses Hasofer
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So Beit Yosef sta"m is actually the opinion of the Beit Yosef (with some variations) is what you're saying? Sep 2, 2014 at 3:16
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