The basic question is, can the same grill be used for meat and milk. But this question has a few sub-questions/caveats and cases that I'm curious about.

1- I'll assume that the same grill grates cannot be used for both meat and dairy. However, if one were to remove the grates (and any drip-pans etc), and clean the grill thoroughly, could one then use that grill for dairy (pizza for example)? Would one have to wait between the meat and dairy cooking?

2- I'll assume that cooking fish on the same grate as meat, even not at the same time, is not allowed. However, can one cook fish on a separate grate? Would you even need to clean the grill? Would you have to wait in between? Is there a difference if the grill is covered or uncovered?

3- I'll assume that vegetables cooked on the same grate as meat can never be eaten with dairy, even if they were not on the grill at the same moment. However, if one uses separate grates, can one eat the vegetables with dairy?

4- Is there a way of kashering a grill to the point where even the grates do not need to be replaced? For example, could one conceivably leave the grill on for a while, and then immediately use the grill for dairy/fish/food expected to be eaten with dairy?

5- Reverse the questions. Once someone used a grill for pizza, what must be done before using it for meat? Once someone used a grill for fish, what must be done before using it for dairy?

(If relevant, assume all questions are asked relative to generally accepted practice of Orthodox Judaism, please source all answers and note differences between Ashkenazi and Sephardic opinions)

  • dupe of 4 judaism.stackexchange.com/q/40805/759
    – Double AA
    Commented Aug 28, 2014 at 22:22
  • Since I'm only answering question 2 (and part of 5) I'll leave this as a comment. If one of the more experienced posters here says it should still be an answer, I'll move it. 2: I was at a BBQ where we accidentally used a sauce that had fish in it. We called a posek, and he said just leave the grill on for a second to burn off the sauce, and keep cooking. The hot dogs that had that sauce should not be eaten. I assume that this only applies to fish, and not dairy. 5(b): According to Ashkenazim (and some Sepharadim) there is no issue of fish and cheese, so there would be no need to do anything. Commented Aug 28, 2014 at 23:03
  • 2
    By the way, just because your question was closed does not mean that it was not a good one....the stated close reason is "too broad," and I agree. This question had way too many parts to it, and was way too complicated. ....you may want to consider splitting this question into smaller pieces (maybe along your numbered list) so that each piece can get answered by itself.
    – MTL
    Commented Sep 1, 2014 at 4:21
  • Partial duplicate: judaism.stackexchange.com/q/93210/170
    – msh210
    Commented Jun 20, 2018 at 3:12


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