What exactly is a ברכה שאינה צריכה?

I have heard, in a shiur about halachot of shabbat, that during shabbat, when you say fewer berachot, you should first say bircat hamazon and then make new berachot on desserts. Wouldn't this constitute as a ברכה שאינה צריכה?

  • beta.hebrewbooks.org/tursa.aspx?a=oc_x1495
    – Double AA
    Aug 26, 2014 at 16:53
  • In many cases, you would have to make A new bracha rishona on dessert even if you had not yet said birkat hamazon. This doesn't really answer the question, though, because the question still holds for the subsequent brachot achronot for the desserts.
    – Daniel
    Aug 26, 2014 at 17:13
  • @Ani Yodea what are you asking ? do you want to know what the parameters of Bracha SHEina Tzricha is ? or do you want to know if it is appropriate to eat dessert after bentching on shabbos so you can get 100 brachos in. don't reply - edit your question :)
    – eramm
    Aug 27, 2014 at 16:23
  • @eramm, saying a new beracha on dessert right after saying birkat hamazon.
    – Ani Yodea
    Aug 27, 2014 at 18:46
  • and if anyone has a good explanation of when we refer to something as a ברכה שאינה צריכיה and when not, I'd love an answer to this question: judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/41196/… Oct 26, 2014 at 18:17

2 Answers 2


First of all, making a new bracha on desert usually isn't a violation of bracha she'eina tzricha, since most deserts require a bracha anyway, even if eaten after the meal. The pursuing discussion is therefore about foods that would be exempt had they been eaten before the final bracha (bentching).

The Shelah is quoted by the Magen Avraham (215:6) as saying that indeed, one is allowed to make brachos on more foods on Shabbos even if those brachos may be unnecessary because one is obligated to make 100 brachos - thus, the brachos aren't unnecessary because it's otherwise too hard to make the full count. The Magen Avraham himself argues, and he doesn't believe that this is a sufficient reason to permit making unnecessary brachos. Therefore, if these desert foods are already out, he must eat them without a bracha rishona before making a bracha achrona on the meal.

However, indirectly causing a need to make more brachos by not having the foods brought to the table until after bentching is, according to the Machatzis Hashekel (290:1) permitted even according to the Magen Avraham. This is also the opinion of the Maharam Galanti quotes in the Shaarei Teshuvah there. Rabbi Elazar Melamed (Peninei Halakha Klalei Brachos 1:2) explains that the logic here is that even though technically this may be an unnecessary bracha, since it's normal enough to want to finish your meal without desert and not eat desert until later, than for the purposes of this halakha it isn't considered a problem to consider 'ending your meal' early even if your real intention is for the purpose of making more brachos.


See Situation 85 in this article:

When one recites a bracha, he is not only reciting a bracha--he is also performing, at the very least, a Mitzvah D’Rabbanan. Thus, assuming that one is not making a bracha MiD’Oraysa (such as bentsching or perhaps Birchas HaTorah)--if he makes 100 brachos a day, he is also fulfilling 100 Mitzvos D’Rabbanan!

My inference from this quote - Birkat Hamazon is D'oraita, and since you had a s'eudah, you are required to say it, so there's no violation, here. There is also a requirement to say 100 Brachot per day, and the Bracha rishona on the desert is D'Rabbanan. You are making the bracha rishona on the desert for the purpose of another mitzvah, namely, getting to the goal of 100 mitzvoth.

The vague part within this evaluation is - how does the term "tzricha" - necessary - apply, here? While there is a mitzvah to say 100 Brachot daily, I don't think it is a requirement to do it. Therefore, according to that logic, making the separate bracha, perhaps is "eina tzricha".

I am inclined to say CYLOR, but, something tells me that your rav might tell you CMY (Contact Mi Yodeya), so you'll create recursion she'eina tzricha :-)

  • So is it beracha sheina tzricha or isn't it?
    – Ani Yodea
    Aug 27, 2014 at 18:45
  • @AniYodeya - My opinion, based on above is no, it isn't. Based on the OP's linked article, the rule seems to apply in situations where you could have exempted one bracha by saying another. I.e. - you were making the brachot solely for the purpose of eating. Here, the intention is reversed, i.e. - you are eating so that you can make the bracha and your making the bracha to fulfill a mitzvah of making the bracha. Seems that the rule doesn't apply, here. Again, it's my opinion based on my induction.
    – DanF
    Aug 28, 2014 at 3:28

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