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I know you're not supposed to do a melacha on Shabbos in order to prevent another Jew from doing one. But is it prohibited to do something (not a melacha) which will likely enable another Jew to do a melacha that he wants to do?

For example, if a Jew asks for a packet of ramen noodles on Shabbos, which he says he plans to eat immediately, and you know he will have to cook water to make them--are you allowed to give him the ramen?

Would the answer vary according to the following?

--Whether he is capable of getting the ramen himself? --Whether he is in one of the halachically-defined states of discomfort, illness, or incapacitation (and wants ramen to feel better, or as a cure)?

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  • What if the water is already hot enough? – Noach MiFrankfurt Aug 20 '14 at 23:34
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If he is able to obtain the ramen of noodles himself it would be called "mesayeh derabanan" ie. a rabbinic prohibition of enabling a sin (lifnei iveir). However, if he cannot procure it himself it would then be prohibited biblically.

In terms of if he is ill, if he life threateningly ill, you yourself could make the food, However, if it is non life threatening it would be biblically prohibited, however you may ask a non jew to make it.

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    This answer could be improved if you would edit in your sources. – Scimonster Aug 22 '14 at 15:58
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    Thanks for this answer. On what grounds would the latter case be prohibited Biblically? And do you have a source? – SAH Aug 26 '14 at 22:21
  • in reference to the sugya of Lifnei Iver see Avoda Zara 6b – Shoel U'Meishiv Aug 28 '14 at 3:10
  • @Nafkamina But you said earlier that lifnei iveir is a rabbinic prohibition. Which is it, rabbinic or Biblical? Or does it vary based on his ability to do it for himself? – SAH Sep 4 '14 at 0:14
  • @SAH it varies based on his ability to do it for himself – Shoel U'Meishiv Sep 12 '14 at 11:50

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