I know that per torah, if a (Jewish) man has relations with a woman who is niddah he is punished with kareit. I have been told that in this case the woman is also punished with kareit.

Is the woman's kareit dependent on the man's, or independent? If a Jewish woman (who is niddah) has relations with a non-Jewish man -- a man who is not subject to kareit because he's not Jewish -- then is she still punished with kareit?

  • dupe? judaism.stackexchange.com/q/2049/759
    – Double AA
    Jul 28, 2014 at 15:57
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    I read that one as "is she allowed to immerse" (which she might do even if it does nothing to permit the man to her), while I'm asking about punishment. One of the answers there partially addresses my question too, but I don't think the questions themselves are duplicates, though they are related. Jul 28, 2014 at 16:12

1 Answer 1


רמב"ם Hilchos Isurei Biah 4:4 writes

הגויים--אין חייבין עליהם משום נידה

Non-Jews – one is not culpable for violations of Niddah with them …

However (although this wasn't the question), there is a non-Niddah Kares for relations with a non-Jew (h/t to DoubleAA) - Even HaEzer 16:2

הבא על העובדת כוכבים, אם לא פגעו בו קנאים ולא הלקוהו בית דין, הרי עונשו מפורש בדברי קבלה שהוא בכרת

A man who has relations with a non-Jewish woman, if he is not killed during the act, it is explicitly stated in Prophets that his punishment is Kares.

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    +1, but see 12:2 there.
    – Yishai
    Jul 28, 2014 at 16:05
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    Might be worth noting that the S.A. appears to be arguing on the Rambam there. The Rambam is pretty clear that it is a Lav, and in private/non-marriage-like Rabbinic, where-as in S.A. it is Kares, with some saying even in private. So Rambam: Nidda (Rabbinically) but not Kares, S.A: Kares, but not Nidda.
    – Yishai
    Jul 29, 2014 at 15:19
  • The Rambam isnt a complete raya for he speaks (as does the Torah) of prohibition from the perpective of the man. Thus in context (I assume) he means that if a Jewish man cohabits with a non-Jewish niddah there is no kares. However, this isnt proof that a Jewish woman who cohabits with a non-Jew wouldnt be subject to kares. V'chein hadaas nosein, that in the case of the Rambam there is no kares since there is no din niddah on a non-Jew. In contradistinction, in the case of the questioner the woman is Jewish and she is a nidda, so she wouls likely be subjected to kares.
    – mevaqesh
    Feb 13, 2015 at 4:17

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