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Wheat is one of the 5 grains, so that would qualify the bread to be hamotzi. Chickpea flour would make the bracha "shehakol". In this bread, there is no majority ingredient. So would the bracha be hamotzi or shehakol?

(Assume that there isn't other bread available to resolve doubt by making a bracha on it instead.)

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As long as the wheat flour is not used only as a binder (and it probably is not) then the bracha is hamotzi. I deduce this from a similar question asked on the Berachot site:

Q20) If I have a bread that the baker made for me special with 3 grains (meals) in the same quantities: oat, rice and buckwheat. What would the beracha rishona and achrona be on such an item? Would I need to eat 3 kazayit of bread to ensure I ate 1 kazayit of oat flour or would 1 kazayit be enough to merit a birkat hamazon?

A20) Assuming the oat four was added for more than just a binding ingredient - the bracha rishona would be ha'motzei. (See Ikar and Tofel for more about this binding ingredient stuff).

The source that the wheat flour is the main ingredient "ikar" is OCh 208 (2).

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  • +1, but an answer that cites primary sources would be even more valuable.
    – Isaac Moses
    Jun 10, 2014 at 16:31
  • @AvrohomYitzchok OC 208 is discussing Mezonot not Hamotzi.
    – Double AA
    Jun 10, 2014 at 17:00
  • @DoubleAA Yes I know. But the principle (of ikar) from there can be applied here. Jun 10, 2014 at 18:24
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Challah 3:7:

הָעוֹשֶׂה עִסָּה מִן הַחִטִּים וּמִן הָאֹרֶז, אִם יֶשׁ בָּהּ טַעַם דָּגָן, חַיֶּבֶת בַּחַלָּה, וְיוֹצֵא בָהּ אָדָם יְדֵי חוֹבָתוֹ בְּפֶסַח. וְאִם אֵין בָּהּ טַעַם דָּגָן, אֵינָהּ חַיֶּבֶת בַּחַלָּה, וְאֵין אָדָם יוֹצֵא בָהּ יְדֵי חוֹבָתוֹ בְּפֶסַח:

If one makes dough from flour and rice, if it has the taste of grain, it’s obligated in Challah, and one fulfills his obligation with it on Pesach. If it does not have the taste of grain, it is not obligated in Challah, and one does not fulfill his obligation with it on Pesach.

Zevachim 78a:

עשה עיסה מן חיטין ומן אורז אם יש בה טעם דגן חייבת בחלה ואע"ג דרובא אורז

If one made dough from wheat and from rice, if it has the taste of grain, it’s obligated in Challah, even though the majority is rice.

Rambam in Hilchos Bikkurim 6:11:

הַמְעָרֵב קֶמַח חִטִּין וְקֶמַח אֹרֶז וְעָשָׂה מֵהֶן עִסָּה אִם יֵשׁ בָּהּ טַעַם דָּגָן חַיֶּבֶת בְּחַלָּה וְאִם לָאו פְּטוּרָה. אֲפִלּוּ הָיָה הַשְּׂאוֹר חִטִּים לְתוֹךְ עִסַּת אֹרֶז. אִם יֵשׁ בָּהּ טַעַם דָּגָן חַיֶּבֶת בְּחַלָּה וְאִם לָאו פְּטוּרָה:

If one mixes wheat flour with with rice flour and makes from them dough, if it has the taste of grain, it is obligated in Challah, and if not, it is exempt. Even if the leavening was wheat in rice dough, if it has the taste of grain, it is obligated in Challah, and if not, it is exempt.

Shulchan Aruch, YD 324:9:

העושה עיסה מהחטים ומהאורז אם יש בה טעם דגן חייבת בחלה אע"פ שרובה אורז ואם לאו פטורה:

If one makes dough from wheat and from rice, if it has the taste of grain, it is obligated in Challah, even though the majority is rice, and if not, it’s exempt.

All of these sources are pretty clear: dough is only considered bread if it has the taste of the grain, even if the grain is in the minority.


If you’ll notice, all of these sources discuss specifically wheat and rice dough. What about wheat and chickpeas, or, more generally, any grain with any non-grain?

The Shach (YD 324:17) quotes a dispute on this:

אם יש בה טעם דגן חייב בחלה. דאורז גריר אחר החטין כן כתב העט"ז ולפי זה משמע בחטין ואורז אזלינן בתר טעם וכמ"ש הרשב"א אבל מהטור משמע להדיא דה"ה לכל ה' מיני דגן וכן משמע באשר"י דתלה הטעם דכיון דטעם כעיקר דאורייתא:

”If it has the taste of grain, it’s obligated in Challah.” For rice is dragged after the wheat; thus wrote the Taz. According to this, it’s implied that by wheat and rice we go after the taste, like that which the Rashba wrote. But from the Tur it’s clearly implied that this is the Halacha for all five grains, and it’s also implied like this in the Ashr”ei (?) who hangs the reasoning as since taste is the primary part on a Torah level.

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