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One who wears non-kosher Tefillin, even accidentally, has not received the Mitzvah of donning Tefillin. Additionally, one does not get the Mitzvah of donning Tzitzis if his Tzitzis is pasul, even unknowingly.

Rabbi Eli Teitelbaum says that similarly, one has not fufilled the Mitzvah of Tzedaka by giving to a fraud. He proves it from Bava Basra 9b, in which Yirmiyahu prays that the wicked give charity to frauds so that they wouldn't receive reward for it.

How then can one be sure that one is actually giving 10% of one's income for the Miztvah of Maaser? After all, it is very possible that some of that money is not being given to genuine poor people.

marked as duplicate by msh210 Jun 2 '14 at 4:41

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  • @msh210 They are not the same question. My question takes the answer given there and further asks, "How can one EVER be sure that he/she is giving 10% of his/her income, considering the fact that it's not a Mitzvah to give to a fraud. The Mitzvah of maaser will always be in doubt." That question asks "Is it still a mitzvah to give to a fraud," and "practically, what happens if it was found out that one gave to a fraud." – user5520 Jun 2 '14 at 18:39
  • So I think I may have an answer. I originally thought Maaser Kesafim was a Mitzvah D'oraysa, and according to some it is. But apparently, these days we just hold it's a very good practice.judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/8846/… – user5520 Jun 2 '14 at 22:49
  • (Continued...) So presumably (although I don't have an actual source), one should just try their best in performing this "very good practice." In addition, there are many things that we aren't completely sure of (e.g. Shechita -- how do we know for sure the meat was slaughtered properly?) and yet all that can be done is for us to do our due diligence. – user5520 Jun 2 '14 at 22:53