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With these questions (1, 2) as partial background I still do not understand the permission to light candles, with a blessing, on the second day of Yom Tov if that lighting is not for ochel nefesh.

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    How is this different from the question you linked to? judaism.stackexchange.com/q/30864/759 Are you wondering why we apply mitokh (the leap discussed in that link) here? Are you asking specifically about the candles lit at night with a blessing?
    – Double AA
    May 12, 2014 at 21:52
  • I think it's quite clear why this is different from the linked question. The linked question is asking why "ochel nefesh" includes things other than food prepartion; this question is asking why we are allowed to do something (lighting candles) that is not ochel nefesh. I don't know if either of the two premises is wrong, but that shouldn't be a correction that requires closing this question. (I personally would really like to know the answer to this.)
    – SAH
    Mar 3, 2016 at 4:56
  • To expand on my edit comment: because the original poster is no longer on Mi Yodeya, and the question was only slightly unclear, and another MY user expressed interest in having this question answered, I have edited the question to improve clarity in order to vote to reopen in the review queue. cc @SAH
    – MTL
    Apr 22, 2016 at 14:07

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