Yebamoth 61b discusses the positive commandment of being fruitful and multiplying. As far as I am aware, one makes no blessing before intercourse. Why not?

Please cite sources!

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  • Although your question is about a birkas hamitzva, this comment may be of tangential interest. – Fred Mar 13 '14 at 1:54
  • Despite there not being a berakhah, various tefillot (including, but not limited to, various LeShem Yihhud versions) are encouraged before performing this mizwah. This is brought down in Hakham Mordekha'i Eliyahu's Darke'i Taharah in the section about preparations leading up to the mizwah. – Lee Feb 16 '16 at 14:35
  • According to Rabbenu Eliyahu of London there is a berakha on every positive mitsvah, if interested I will post it as an answer. – mevaqesh Aug 13 '16 at 0:22

The Maggid Ta'alumos to the Rif on Maseches Berachos, daf 35a (25a in pages of the Rif) says that we do not make the blessing because she may not get pregnant and then the mitzvah was not fulfilled. He also addresses that Onah is a negative commandment and therefore has no blessing.

However, he does indicate that the blessings under the Chuppah do constitute a general birkas hamitzvah.



The גליוני הש"ס to Berachos 35a discusses that there should be a blessing on marital relations, and concludes that Birkas Ha'erusin accomplishes that. It would seem he held this concept can extend to other pleasures, although this could still be in the realm of "a need of the body. https://judaism.stackexchange.com/a/34856/1857

  • perhaps the reason one should not make a beracha each time just before is because of kishui ever. i.e. not derech eretz to speak to the king in such a matzav – ray Mar 14 '14 at 6:18
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    I have a hard time with that, ray. The erection is for the sake of a mitzvah, and no impurity has been contracted as ejaculation has not happened. Sex, in the case of a mitvah, is a holy, holy thing. One's body is a cheftzat mitvah, like any other. I know you mentioned that a persons' mind is often in the wrong place before and likely during this act, but is it? We have sexual desires, yes, but we have them for a purpose. sex within marriage IS that purpose, so are lustful thoughts in that situation impure? I guess have very different perceptions of things. – Baby Seal Mar 14 '14 at 15:57
  • @BabySeal maybe you're right. but there's an extremely strong physical drive there. are most people really on the level? remember chazal must institute something that most people can handle. – ray Mar 15 '14 at 18:54
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    My whole point is that the physical drive itself, when you use it in this situation, is kadosh. By getting married and channeling your sexuality into a relationship with a spouse, you are on 'the level'. There are certainly higher levels, i feel, but that state is a special one, nonetheless. – Baby Seal Mar 16 '14 at 7:52
  • @ray But we do make a Berakha before Yibbum – Double AA Jul 28 '16 at 18:59

The Shulchan Aruch (EH 63:2) actually does quote a beracha from the Bahag, to be made after the first bi'ah with a Betula. The Aruch HaShulchan says that we are not noheg to say this beracha anymore.

However, that beracha is not a beracha on the mitzva, but it appears to be a birkas hashevach. The reason we don't make a beracha on bi'ah is because it is contingent on another party. If she says no, you are not supposed to have bi'ah.

  • Then how come you make a bracha on Yibbum? That's also contingent. – Double AA Mar 12 '14 at 20:13
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    Actually, it's not. We learn from the derasha of ויבמה that it is even בכל כרחה – moses Mar 12 '14 at 20:14
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    Ok but a regular woman isn't allowed to be Moredet either. – Double AA Mar 12 '14 at 20:16
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    Is the reason in your second paragraph also in the Aruch Hashulhan? – Baby Seal Mar 12 '14 at 20:45
  • As @BabySeal implies, moses, editing in to your answer a source for the reason you give in its second paragraph will increase its value a lot. – msh210 Mar 13 '14 at 5:58

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