Is the dictum of safek dioraisa l'chumrah (and its inverse safek d'rabanan l'kulah) a principle from the Torah, or a din d'rabanan? How does this change how we react in these sefeikah situations?

  • 1
    Machloket Rambam vs Rashba. Don't know how it would change how we react; they both agree it is a rule.
    – Double AA
    Feb 19, 2014 at 19:27
  • I'd think that if safek d'oray'sa l'chumra mid'oray'sa then even a s'fek s'feka would be l'chumra, since it's still a safek d'oray'sa — unless the source for safek l'chumra explicitly excludes s'fek s'feka.
    – msh210
    Feb 19, 2014 at 21:27
  • There's a שב שמעתתא on this - proving that ספק דאורייתא לחומרא is דרבנן. There are various Sugyos that say "since when is a Safek obligated from the Torah". No time for a full answer - it's an entire shiur. Feb 24, 2014 at 13:21

1 Answer 1


The Rashba (Toras HaBayis, Bayis 4, Shaar 1, 11b. Also in his chiddushim on kiddushin 73a d"h mamzer vaday) says it's a Torah principle. The Ran (Kiddushin 15b according to the Rif pages) also holds it's a Torah principle.

The Rambam (Perek 12 in hilchos tumas hames, halacha 12) holds it's a principle from the Rabbis.

The Pri Chadash (Klalei sfek sfeka, klal 1) and the Kreisi U'Plisi (beis hasafek, d"h ke'she'ani) paskin like the Rambam. The Shach (klalei sfek sfeka 25), Pri Megadim (on that Shach) and Toras HaShelamim (klalei sfek sfeka hamechudashim 16) paskin like the Rashba.

This is only a partial answer to your question, but hopefully these sources will be a start.

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