Why are identical words pronounced differently at certain locations of the Shema? Or is this only for Sefardim? The two identical phrases in question are in the Veahávta and then again in the Vehayá:
- "beshivtéja beveitéja uvlejtéja vadérej, uvshojbéja uvkuméja." (Please note the change of accent mark between both readings)
- "beshivtejá beveitéja, uvlejtejá vadérej uvshojbejá uvkuméja. (The J should be read as CH for Ashkenazim)
Keep in mind that I'm not referring to differences between Sefardim vs Ashkenazim pronunciation, but within the Shema itself. I will assume that this pronunciation may apply to Ashkenazim as well and that the issue may be one of Hebrew grammar. But what exactly is that rule (if it is one of grammar)?
The example above was taken from the Sidur Tefilát Binyamin by Benjamin Senker