I've been doing some research, and I found a lot of references to the rule that if a marriage lasts 10 years and does not produce any children, the couple must divorce and remarry in a new attempt to have children. This raised three questions in my mind, which I was unable to find the answers to despite research attempts:
Is this still a rule practiced in modern times? If not, when did this change (and what justification was given for the change)?
In the past, one could only guess if they were sterile or just hadn't yet had a child for whatever reason. But now we have science which can, in certain cases, confirm that it is impossible for a woman to have children. (The most extreme example: if she has had a hysterectomy.). Is there a difference between having trouble conceiving and likely being infertile, and knowing for an absolute fact that you cannot have children?
If a woman is entirely certain that she cannot have children, does that mean she cannot marry? Or that she may, but the marriage can only last 10 years (dependent upon the answer to #1).
(This seems silly though, as the 10 year period seems to exist to give enough time for the couple to try to conceive, and in this case they already know going into it that they can't. Of course the woman should disclose this fact to her future husband, but producing children is the husband's responsibility and that he flouts Jewish law if he has none. So would such a woman be barred from marrying because she would prevent her husband from carrying out his duty to have children? (Or could/should she marry a non-Jew, who has no such restrictions? Or could adoption fulfill this requirement?) I also read that the primary purpose of marriage is not procreation, but love and companionship and partnership for the married couple. These two ideas seem to be at odds in the case of a woman who cannot have children.