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If someone makes a partial statement (while not intending to make a Shevua) is that considered a Shevua? For example, we learn in the Torah about swearing (even in Hashem's Name) (which clearly should not be done unless there is a halachic need, which would be rare - and if it needs to be done only in consultation with proper halachic authorities). If a statement limited to something such as "I swear on Hashem's" - without completing the statement (and without intending a shevua) - and is immediately followed by "Bli Neder, Bli Shevua" (I assume that "Bli Shevua" is what would be said), would that have any halachic ramifications?

  • In terms of creating prohibitions or in terms of being appropriate to say in the first place? – Y     e     z Feb 10 '14 at 3:21
  • In terms of creating prohibitions. Again, without actually saying anything aside from what was quoted in the question (in other words, not actually making any statement creating any prohibition or saying that anything should happen/be effected). Stopping short of saying anything beyond the quoted words. – Toras EMES 613 Feb 10 '14 at 3:30
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    What prohibition would it create? The person didn't identify anything to become prohibited. Or even use a language implying a prohibition. – Y     e     z Feb 10 '14 at 3:33
  • I thought only when you say a full swearing (including Hashem's name) does it actually make a Nedar. That's why the specific text is about using Hashem's name for a Nedar that you don't fulfill. – PixelArtDragon Feb 10 '14 at 14:07
  • Right, I was thinking that just saying the words quoted, since it doesn't verbally include any prohibition (or statement otherwise) or even specify anything else beyond the statement, that it wouldn't be considered a shevua. However, this is just what I'm thinking, without having looked at any sources to determine what the halacha would be. – Toras EMES 613 Feb 11 '14 at 4:00

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