If a man has a child from a previous wife, but has not fulfilled the Mitzvah of Piriah Veriviah and divorces his wife because they were unable to have children for 10 years, does his demonstrated fertility impact the wife in any way (her ability to marry another man who hasn't fulfilled the Mitzvah of Piriah Veriviah)?

Normally, we say that she has to have two marriages where she wasn't able to have children for 10 years before there is such an issue (S.A. E.H.), but what about in this case?

In other words, are we concerned that the lack of children may be a couples infertility issue, or does that not enter into the equation?

We are obviously not concerned about it after two marriages, where we would say it was an issue with just both those husbands, but what about with the first husband only where his ability to have children is demonstrated, but he has not yet fulfilled the Mitzvah of Piryiah Verivyah?

Edit: I should note that we can devise a theoretical where the husband has two wives, and has a child (that survives or is a miscarriage) with one of them at the same time he is married to the other, thus eliminating the possibility that he developed a later fertility issue, although that makes the question much more theoretical.

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    Perhaps a problem with the man's fertility has developed after he was married to the first wife (for example אינו יורה כחץ; see also Shulchan Aruch EH 154:6; Beis Sh'muel 154:11).
    – Fred
    Nov 5, 2013 at 0:59


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