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A local Orthodox rabbi told me that while most of the decisions in the Shulchan Aruch were based on taking the majority of the Rambam, Rosh and Rif (all of whom he claimed supported laying tefilin on Chol HaMoed), the Shulchan Aruch ruled against laying tefilin on Chol HaMoed based on the ruling of the Zohar.
Where does the Shulchan Aruch say this? Why did he apparently deviate from his normal rule of psak?
The source is a zohar in Shir Hashirim Chapter 8. When I looked it up it seemed to me that he wasn't recording normative practice but innovating based on his contemporary the Arizal. That would also explain why so many ashkenazim don't wear tefillin on chol hamoed but litvaks and yekkes who were less influenced by chassidus and hence by the Arizal still do.
He deviates from the normal rule because it was the established practice before his time, with a basis in Rishonim and in Kabbalah. Established practice is not over-ruled by the harmonizing of the three main opinions in Halacha.
But regardless the Kesef Mishna (by the same author as the S"A) understands the Rambam to mean that wearing Tefilin on Chol Hamoed is not to be done (see here footnote 146).
