Whatever Moses see is just God's creation right given that God cannot be seen and does not have forms or body (or does He?).

Did Moshe Rabbeinu See God?

Well did Moses really see God or did he just see God's hologram, which must be one of God's creation.

If Moses pray to that hologram, is it avodah zarah?

  • A hologram.... of what? – Hod - Monica's Army Sep 23 '13 at 11:35
  • 2
    How is this different from the other question you linked to? – Monica Cellio Sep 23 '13 at 13:10
  • A hologram of God? I mean what exactly Moses see? God himself or one of His incarnation/apparition/hologram/image (which God created) – user4951 Sep 23 '13 at 13:33
  • "How did Moshe speak to God?", "How did Moshe see God?", "How did Moshe hear God?", "How did Moshe stand before God?", "How did Moshe pray to God?", et al. are all the same question. – WAF Sep 23 '13 at 16:14

The question you cite deals with much of this question. I am not sure of the hologram angle makes this a non-duplicate.

The bottom line is that we see aspects of God everyday in all of his creations. These are not God, himself, but a projection of God into a form that we can appreciate. The higher one's spiritual level, the less mediation one might need to appreciate God. Moses asked to see God's glory -- an unmediated expression of God's identity. This is not about physical form, but about an interaction with the full force of God. God simply said "Dude, you are pretty much up there, but you can't handle it. I'll water down less than I would for some other guy." Instead of seeing sunlight, Mo was allowed to stare into the sun. I can't do that and he could. But staring at the sun still isn't looking at God.

The text, often, in an attempt to use language with which I can connect uses a human construct so that my finite brain can wrap itself around some small percentage of the infinite. Dibra hakatuv kilashon ben adam. God does not have a "right hand" or a "finger." But we envision God in a certain way through the language.


  • That all makes sense, but what do you make of פָּנִים אֶל-פָּנִים in D'varim 34:10? – Monica Cellio Sep 23 '13 at 13:08
  • I can speak to you face to face even if we aren't facing each other in the same room. it is a figure of speech even today. why would we assume that, contrary to established theology, it had to be a literal statement back then? – rosends Sep 23 '13 at 13:13
  • 1
    I don't think it's literal either, to be clear; I just suspect that's part of the background of the question, so addressing it would strengthen your answer. – Monica Cellio Sep 23 '13 at 13:15

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .