I am the Lord, your God, who brought you out of the land of Egypt, out of the house of bondage. You shall have no other gods before me. You shall not make for yourselves an idol, nor any image of anything that is in the heavens above, or that is in the earth beneath, or that is in the water under the earth: you shall not bow yourself down to them, nor serve them, for I, the Lord your God, am a jealous God, visiting the iniquity of the fathers on the children, on the third and on the fourth generation of those who hate me, and showing loving kindness to thousands of those who love me and keep my commandments.
Few things are suspicious here.
- The Lord didn't say that he is God of all. He only said that he is the God of Jews.
- The Lord commands that the Jews (is it appropiate to call them Jews at that time, given that there are more than just Judah tribe?) not to have other gods besides the Lord. The Lord didn't say the other gods do not exist. He said the Jews shouldn't worship other god.
It's like saying star of David is your flag. Though shall not salute other flags (especially those with swastika in it).
What would be the explanation of this so called monotheism?
If Torah describes a supreme "God of all" monotheism, where in the torah it is more explicitly stated?
Note: Basically I am questioning atheists' theory that monotheism arise after Babylonian exile. Hence, any texts after torah that more explicitly declare monotheism don't really "crush" that theory. The topic in this question is in Torah it self.