Vayikra 17:15:

And any person, whether a native or a stranger (gair), who eats carrion (nevaila) or what was torn (trief), shall immerse his garments and immerse himself in the waters, and shall remain unclean until evening, and then he shall become clean.

Why is the stranger included in this requirement to be purified after eating non-kosher meat?

EDIT: If "gair" means convert in this case, why does it even need to mention whether or not the person is a convert? Additionally, how do you know when the word means convert and when it means non-Jew? For example, Devarim 14:21 says:

You shall not eat any carcass. You may give it to the stranger (gair) who is in your cities, that he may eat it...


1 Answer 1


The "stranger" happens to mean a convert, not a non-Jew.

  • Sorry, I must have been confused by the fact that it uses the same word in Deut 14:21 when it says to give the carcass to the "stranger" (gair). But if I will accept your answer, please elaborate on why it must specify native and stranger (are there some ritual purity laws that only natives, and not converts, must follow?) and how you know when "gair" means convert and when it means non-Jew. And please, a source for your answer.
    – A L
    Commented Aug 25, 2013 at 5:11
  • It doesn't must specify native and stranger, however there are many times that the Torah writes them together to indicate that both the native and the convert are equal citizens in G-d's eyes. As far as your question 'are there some ritual purity laws that only natives, and not converts, must follow?' in general: No, though technically there may be cases where the onset of the impurity began before s/he converted. Commented Aug 25, 2013 at 5:23
  • For a deeper understanding see Ohr Hachayim on Chapter 16:29 (in our Possuk he says to look there). Commented Aug 25, 2013 at 5:38
  • Still the question remains why the ger in Vayikra must follow the command to cleanse himself and the ger in Devarim doesn't has to follow the command and can eat of the nevelah.. the simple answer (according to Rashi) is that the ger of Devarim is considered a ger toshav.. and not a convert (ger tzedek). But on which basis is this distinguish made?
    – Levi
    Commented Feb 15, 2016 at 8:32

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .