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This question already has an answer here:

Many times when you read a confusing verse in the scriptures, several commentators offer their own interpretation. For example, Rashi can say X, Sforno says Y, and Ramban says something completely different.

Since the Oral Torah was given to Moshe at Sinai, shouldn't there be only one interpretation?

Did the oral tradition get lost through the generations, causing human interpretations of the scriptures to take place?

Edit:

In this question, the answer is given in regards to how we are able to have different shitas. My question pertains to the actual interpretation of the scriptures--before we even start extracting halachot.

marked as duplicate by Double AA Jul 21 '13 at 14:42

This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

  • @DoubleAA, I have edited the question; please investigate and reopen or include further steps for reopening the question. – Ani Yodea Jul 24 '13 at 17:28
  • I believe it is still a duplicate of this question: judaism.stackexchange.com/q/9093/5 – Seth J Jul 24 '13 at 21:00
  • @SethJ, that's a different duplicate, and it is more appropriate. Thanks! – Ani Yodea Jul 25 '13 at 13:29