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I have three questions.

1) Can a religious Orthodox Jewish employer, refuse to employ a Non Observant Jew on Shabbos or other Jewish holidays, if the Non Observant Jew volunteers to work on this, since the Non Observant Jew has always worked on Shabbos and Jewish Holidays all his life in other jobs for other non Jewish employers.

2) Can a religious Orthodox Jewish employer refuse to hire or employ a Jew that converted to another religion on Shabbos or any other day, because of the religious Jewish person's beliefs are against someone who left the religion and sees them as an Appostolate?

3)Does a non religious Jewish person have to inform his religious Jewish employer if he is indeed Jewish as well, because he feels that if he does inform the employer, the employer will not allow him to work on Saturday, when the non religious person needs the extra income from Saturday work.

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    The last doesn't sound like a question of Jewish law but of secular law.
    – Double AA ♦
    Commented May 19, 2013 at 1:20
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    closely related: judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/23519/…
    – Charles Koppelman
    Commented May 19, 2013 at 1:45
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    @CharlesKoppelman, but that's just a specialization of #1; a Jew who converted to another religion is presumably a non-observant Jew. (He's still a Jew, after all.)
    – Monica Cellio
    Commented May 19, 2013 at 3:03
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    The questions can be rephrased to Halachic questions. I suggest OP clarifies before further action.
    – JNF
    Commented May 19, 2013 at 5:17
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    I suspect that by "hire," Costa means something like "allow to pick up hours under an existing employment agreement," but we'd need some clarification from Costa to be sure. It's not clear to me whether these are questions about Jewish or secular employment law. If the latter, we'd need to know the jurisdiction in order to answer, but it could still well be on-topic, as it is practical information that directly affects an aspect of religious observance. In any case, I recommend closure until these issues are clarified.
    – Isaac Moses ♦
    Commented May 19, 2013 at 6:59

1 Answer 1

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In Mishnah Berurah 243:2 it says that to have a Mumar do work on Shabbos (even if it were permitted to have a non-Jew do the same work) there is Lefnei Iver Lo Sitein Michshol.

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    I went to see online what Lefnei Iver Lo Sitein Michsol could mean, and I think I found an explanation. The religious boss would be 'helping' my friend commit Torah violations if he allowed him to work. I understand now why he does not want my friend to work. Thank You all.
    – Costa
    Commented May 19, 2013 at 12:19

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