I've heard there is a discussion in the Ohr Sameach regarding when someone appoints a shliach (messenger) to divorce his wife, whether the person must use his own klaf (parchment) to write the get on or if he may use the klaf of the shliach.

The Ohr Sameach there apparently discusses many nafkeh minei (consequences) in this concept of making someone a "shliach" and how far it goes (i.e. does he become literally like the person himself.) I really wanted to ask more and other questions in this regard but I'd rather see what the Ohr Sameach writes in this to better ask the other questions.

Where can I find this discussion in the Ohr Sameach?

  • I think this is far too advanced for this site.
    – user2709
    May 4, 2013 at 23:04
  • 6
    @shulem Not at all. Hang around long enough. There are Talmidei Chachamim here and/or people with computers and good searching skills.
    – Yehoshua
    May 4, 2013 at 23:16
  • 2
    Wait... So what's your question exactly?
    – yydl
    May 5, 2013 at 2:07
  • 1
    @GershonGold, care to post an answer?
    – Isaac Moses
    May 5, 2013 at 4:52
  • 1
    @MeirZirkind, care to post an answer?
    – Isaac Moses
    May 5, 2013 at 4:52

1 Answer 1


These are the cases he brings here:

  • If the sender (husband) is very sick can the Shliach (messenger) give the Get?
  • If the sender (husband) became a Shoteh after making a Shliach to write a Get for his (husband's) wife?
  • If the husband died - the Shliach definitely can't give it.
  • If Shliach used his own paper (Klaf) is it a kosher Get?
  • If one makes a Shliach to sell his Chometz, does it suffice if the Shliach is Makne (transfers ownership) of the Metaltelin (movable objects) Agav (in conjunction with) his own Karka (field), instead of the owners Karka?
  • Can a husband make a Shliach to be Maifer (nullify) his wife's vows (if only the Shliach heard the vows)?
  • If a woman makes a Shliach to receive her Kedushin, does the husband-to-be have to have the woman's consent (to get married to her) when giving over the Kedushin to the Shliach or does it suffice that the Shliach consents?
  • If a Kohen makes a Yisroel a Shliach to be Mekadesh a Gerusha for him (Kohen), did the Yisroel do the sin or did the Kohen do the sin? (This is here)
  • If a man makes a woman a Shlucha to be to cut off the Pey'os of a Katan, did the man do the sin or did the woman do the sin?
  • I didnt know this or sameach. But the sender becoming a shote is a ktsos. I think he was the first to make this 'chakira'.
    – user2709
    May 5, 2013 at 8:37

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