A husband is supposed to ensure his wife's Simchas Yom Tov by buying her something (new jewelry, clothes, etc.) for the holiday. If she has already received such an item from a different source, and will thus already have this kind of simcha, does the husband still have an obligation to buy her something?
Continuing from my comment above referring to kidushin 34b, it seems:
Rashi holds there is no obligation for a woman to have simcha, the husband is required to buy her stuff (nowadays, bring her to Yerushalayim bizman hamikdash) because her happiness enhances his happiness.
Others (Tos., Ritva, et al.) reject Rashi and hold that women have an obligation, but only through their husbands as per the pasuk. A widow then has no obligation and is only mentioned in the pasuk as an aniya who the man must support as tzedaka when going up to Yerushalayim.
According to the above opinions, the answer to your question would be "yes".
Our sifrei halacha seem to go with the Rambam who,at the beginning of hilchos chagiga states categorically, that women are obligated in the simcha. The Lechem Mishna's approach is that Abaye, who stated in the gemara that women do not have an obligation, is later rejected for R' Zeira. Accordingly, a widow must find a way to have simcha.
Although one can find room in the Rambam to say that a husband is merely charged with making sure his wife has simcha (and the answer to your question would be "no", I still have no conclusive proof.