I recall learning, I think in mesechtas kiddushin, that a woman is the (halachic?) equivalent of a man who has had a bris milah performed. In other words, since she does not have the same organ she is viewed as if she is a person who has had a bris performed, not as a person who does not have a need to have one performed. What is the source for this idea?
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2Out of curiousity, what's the nafka mina?– yoelFeb 28, 2013 at 22:24
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LeMai Nafka Minah?– Seth JFeb 28, 2013 at 22:25
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for a dvar torah i'm working on, no halachic implication (that i'm aware of)– user2110Feb 28, 2013 at 22:28
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1@yoel, SethJ a practical application is mentioned in the g'mara (see my answer): this is the reason a woman can do a mila.– msh210 ♦Mar 1, 2013 at 0:35
1 Answer
אשה כמאן דמהילא דמיא
a woman is like someone circumcised
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Spins on this come up in other contexts, e.g. suppose a non-Jewish man had his genitalia amputated, hence circumcision is an impossibility; can he convert to Judaism?– ShalomMar 1, 2013 at 2:33
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@Shalom, this question probably covers that judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/33388/…– theJul 20, 2014 at 22:59