I recall learning, I think in mesechtas kiddushin, that a woman is the (halachic?) equivalent of a man who has had a bris milah performed. In other words, since she does not have the same organ she is viewed as if she is a person who has had a bris performed, not as a person who does not have a need to have one performed. What is the source for this idea?

  • 2
    Out of curiousity, what's the nafka mina?
    – yoel
    Feb 28, 2013 at 22:24
  • LeMai Nafka Minah?
    – Seth J
    Feb 28, 2013 at 22:25
  • for a dvar torah i'm working on, no halachic implication (that i'm aware of)
    – user2110
    Feb 28, 2013 at 22:28
  • 1
    @yoel, SethJ a practical application is mentioned in the g'mara (see my answer): this is the reason a woman can do a mila.
    – msh210
    Mar 1, 2013 at 0:35

1 Answer 1


Bavli, Avoda Zara 27:1:

אשה כמאן דמהילא דמיא
a woman is like someone circumcised

  • Spins on this come up in other contexts, e.g. suppose a non-Jewish man had his genitalia amputated, hence circumcision is an impossibility; can he convert to Judaism?
    – Shalom
    Mar 1, 2013 at 2:33
  • @Shalom, this question probably covers that judaism.stackexchange.com/questions/33388/…
    – the
    Jul 20, 2014 at 22:59

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