This is from Yehoshua' 6:25.
Assuming she was a harlot and not, as some suggest, an innkeeper, what exactly does this mean? Did she convert? Did her conversion remove the stain of being a harlot from her (presumably because she is a new person)? Would she not be liable for punishment for her past sins? Would she have been able to marry any non-Kohen (a Kohen is prohibited from marrying any convert)?
Note that I assume most of this question can be answered with a simple "yes", any convert can be fully integrated into Klal Yisrael, including marrying any non-Kohen, even known prostitutes. But I am asking mostly for certainty about a)that assumption and b)whether she in fact converted.