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Shulchan Aruch (YD 124:1) states:

A Nochri child who does not mention idolatry or Meshamshim, if he touched wine he forbids only drinking it, but not benefit from it.

(See this related question.)

Would this prohibition be only in the case of a gentile child who is an idolator or also in the case of a non-idolatrous one — i.e. would the wine be permitted to drink if a non-idolatrous gentile child touched it?

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    First of all, as has been established elsewhere on the site, merely touching the bottle would not make it Yayin Nesech. Second, Yayin Nesech is the wrong term - it's only Yayin Nesech if it has been used for a libation. Otherwise it's Stam Yeiynam.
    – Seth J
    Dec 20, 2012 at 17:52
  • @SethJ who mentioned touching the bottle?
    – Danield
    Dec 20, 2012 at 20:51
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    You did. "Would a Gentile baby/child that touch/shake an open container of wine..."
    – Seth J
    Dec 20, 2012 at 20:55
  • @DoubleAA I Edited the question only to include my third question which wasn't included in the other duplicate question.
    – Danield
    Dec 21, 2012 at 12:00
  • much better question, IMHO.
    – Seth J
    Dec 21, 2012 at 15:34

2 Answers 2

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From Avoda Zara 57a we see that even a baby who is one day old renders the wine prohibited for drinking:

אמרו ליה רב כהנא ורב אסי לרב והא מר הוא דאמר תינוק בן יומו הוא עושה יין נסך אמר להו אימור דאמרי אנא בשתייה בהנאה מי אמרי

Rav Kahana and Rav Asi said to Rav: But wasn’t it you, Master, who said: If a gentile baby who is one day old touches wine, he renders it wine used for a libation, even though he lacks any intent? Rav said to them: Say that I said that the baby renders the wine prohibited for drinking. Did I say that it is prohibited to derive benefit from it? It is therefore permitted to sell the wine.

The same is repeated by the Be'er Hetev Y"D 124:1:

בשתיה. ואיתא בש''ס דאפילו תינוק בן יומו עושה יי''נ בשתיה וכן הוא בפוסקים

The Tur (YD 124:1) says that Only an adult, who understand what he's doing when it comes to idol worship, can make the wine asur in having pleasure from, but a child who didn't reach this definition, only makes it asur for drinking but not for pleasure.

Would this prohibition be only in the case of a gentile child who is an idolator or also in the case of a non-idolatrous one

Well, from the above sources we see, that even a child who is not an idolator, makes the wine asur to drink.

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According to the Ben Ish Chai, a prominent 19th century rabbi of Bagdhad, a Moslem child does not make the wine forbidden. This is found in the four volume English edition of "Halachos of the Ben Ish Chai"

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