The halacha (SA OC 318) generally is that if someone cooks food b'mezid (on purpose) on Shabas then he may not eat it, not even after Shabas.

Magen Avraham adds that the pot in which the food was cooked is non-kosher also. Later authorities explain that it is non-kosher for that person: anyone else can eat what may be cooked in it on a future date, but not him. (It can, incidentally, be made kosher again by the usual means (Kaf Hachayim).) They also mention that the ban on eating the food applies even to plain water that was cooked.

Mishna Brura explains that the reason the pot in which food was cooked is non-kosher (to him) is that it absorbed the forbidden (to him) food.

Now, normally, absorption is a problem because the taste of the non-kosher food is absorbed in the walls of the pot, and comes out again when the pot is next used. Seemingly, then, if one cooked plain water on Shabas, the pot should not be rendered non-kosher: after all, water has no taste.

Do any pos'kim discuss this issue: whether a pot in which plain water was cooked on Shabas is rendered non-kosher for the one who cooked in it? Or can anyone offer arguments one way or the other (beyond what I've written above)?

Someone raised this question at the Shabas table this week, and I figured I'd bring it here.

  • +1 Just to be clear, the Kaf Hachayim and Magen Avraham forbid the water that was cooked on Shabbat, but don't discuss the keli it was cooked in? Do they mention if it matters if the water had cooled again (because there is no physical change in the water, when it cools it might become permitted again; see also judaism.stackexchange.com/a/18646/759)? Also I wonder how one would even kasher it? Can boiling water remove the taste of...boiling water?
    – Double AA
    Nov 25, 2012 at 2:33
  • @DoubleAA The Acharonim I've seen who discuss water don't discuss the pot it (water in particular) was cooked in, or whether the water had cooled, no.
    – msh210
    Nov 25, 2012 at 3:13
  • 1
    I discussed with some people (not of sufficient standing to be a posted source) today an analogous case of water that is tikrovet avodah zarah and is forbidden mideoraita and none of us could think of any reason to forbid the pot.
    – Double AA
    Nov 26, 2012 at 0:16
  • 1
    @DoubleAA In regards to the case of Avodah Zarah one Talmud Chacham wanted to say that since tikroves avodah zarah is ossur b'meshehu then even mayim (which has no tam) could be ossur. Although no sources provided.
    – Yehoshua
    Dec 2, 2012 at 23:13
  • 1
    Why do you say water has no taste? When I drink water, I can tell the difference between (for example) water from different municipalities because it has different amounts of minerals absorbed in it.
    – Daniel
    Apr 18, 2013 at 16:57

2 Answers 2


I believe we can compare this case to the Din of the גיד הנשה (sciatic nerve) that Shulchan Aruch YD Siman 65:9 says that the actual גיד הנשה is like a piece of wood which has no taste but the Torah forbids it, therefore it does not make its mixture forbidden from what it exudes.

In Siman 100:2 it says, if the גיד הנשה disintegrated and unrecognizable it needs 60 against it to nullify the mixture. (Meaning that since there is actual גיד הנשה in this mixture, though it has no flavor/taste, it is treated as any other prohibition which needs 60:1 ratio).

The Kaf Hachayim (ibid #27) brings a story that a גיד הנשה was cooked and the rabbi permitted the pot on the grounds that it does not give out any taste.

This all assumes that water has no taste at all.


There is machloket amoraim on a status of a food cooked on shabbat. rabbi meir holds that something which is intentionally cooked on shabbat is not allowed for use to everyone till after shabbat, and mutar to everyone including the cook after shabbat rabbi yeuda- asur to the one that cooked forever and mutar to everyone else till after shabbat Gra pasak for shita of rabbi Meir Shulchan Aruch pasak for Rabbi Yehuda Now,acc to the Gra if you be strict like magen avraham, you can use the pot after shabbat , since r rabbi Meir holds of an opinion that everybody, including the cook is allowed to get benefit from the food after shabbat. Rabbi Ovadya Yosef paskins like this (you are allowed do use a keli which u cooked with on shabbat, after shabbat is over, yalkut yosef shabbat kerch 3 page 27), even though he points out that from midst chasidut one can , if he can do hagala on a keli

In addition by water may be even stronger side to be meykil since some rishonim(radbaz,rambam) hold cooking things that you can eat raw is asur only miderabanan and not mideoraita. Shulchan Aruch doesn't hold of that opinion.

  • 1
    I'm not sure this really answers the question.
    – Double AA
    Feb 8, 2013 at 4:15
  • Just for the record, the Rambam says (Hilchos Shabbos 9:1) that if one heats up water he is Chayyov! Apr 19, 2013 at 3:28

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .