If one sharpens a knife on Shabbos, have they transgressed an issur d'oraisa or an issur d'rabbanan?

  • 1
    If you did it on purpose I think it's deoraita. Why would accident matter? You mean it's a davar sheino mitkavein? It's misaseik?
    – Double AA
    Sep 10, 2012 at 13:16
  • I only noted that it was done by mistake because the way I typed the question to begin with I was able to submit it to do the "quality" of it. Which I don't understand how this system is judging the quality but that's a different story. The fact that it was done b'shogeg was agav...I wouldn't even had mentioned it if the shailo would have been accepted as it was...
    – Yehoshua
    Sep 10, 2012 at 16:10
  • Yehoshua, one can easily add other things to extend the length of the question (like explain what the terms means that you are using).
    – Seth J
    Sep 10, 2012 at 18:07
  • @SethJ fixed.... Sep 10, 2012 at 18:30
  • We should tell @DoubleAA.
    – Seth J
    Sep 10, 2012 at 18:53

1 Answer 1


The answer depends on the nature of the knife and how sharp it was to start with. If it is a knife that can only be used once it is sufficiently sharp and you sharpen it, the issur is de'oraita and it falls into the category of makkah bepatish. If it is a knife that does not require sharpening and you have merely done something with it that inadvertently caused it to be sharper, that is only a problem - and only according to some authorities - if doing so is the sort of thing that you would normally do during the week. If it is, you have violated the rabbinic prohibition of shevut. If it is not, then you have not done anything.

  • 4
    This is a good answer, but can be vastly improved with sources.
    – Ze'ev
    Sep 10, 2012 at 18:17

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