I met someone who lives outside of Israel almost full-time and who told me that, because he's in Israel for each of the shalosh r'galim every year, he keeps only one day yom tov. Is this (the applicability of that criterion alone) a valid halachic opinion, and, if so, whose?

  • I seem to remember hearing this opinion in the name of Rav Shlomo Zalman Aurbach, but my level of certainty is definitely in the 'comment-worthy' range.
    – Double AA
    Aug 7 '12 at 12:20
  • 1
    Aha judaism.stackexchange.com/a/11693/759
    – Double AA
    Aug 7 '12 at 13:04
  • @DoubleAA, sounds like an answer.
    – msh210
    Aug 7 '12 at 17:58
  • Eventually, but in the meantime, user1040 never edited in a source for his statement and that would seem to be crucial for this question.
    – Double AA
    Aug 8 '12 at 2:54
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    @ms210 Found it :)
    – Double AA
    Sep 9 '12 at 3:39

Rabbi Shlomo Zalman Aurbach rules this way in a responsum (Minchat Shlomo 1:19:7). After reading it I'm not sure if he also requires that they own a permanent dwelling in Israel to live in during Chag or not; CYLOR for a final ruling (as usual).

  • It is mashma that he requires a residence, but the note of his students say that that would only be if you cannot find residence. but today with the abundance of hotels it would not be necessary
    – Jon
    Apr 9 '21 at 14:01

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