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I met someone who lives outside of Israel almost full-time and who told me that, because he's in Israel for each of the shalosh r'galim every year, he keeps only one day yom tov. Is this (the applicability of that criterion alone) a valid halachic opinion, and, if so, whose?

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Rabbi Shlomo Zalman Aurbach rules this way in a responsum (Minchat Shlomo 1:19:7). After reading it I'm not sure if he also requires that they own a permanent dwelling in Israel to live in during Chag or not; CYLOR for a final ruling (as usual).

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  • It is mashma that he requires a residence, but the note of his students say that that would only be if you cannot find residence. but today with the abundance of hotels it would not be necessary
    – Jon
    Apr 9, 2021 at 14:01

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