5

May one use mezuzot with different scripts in the same house? For example can the muzuzah in one room be ashkenaz (beit yosef) and in another be sefardi (vellish)?

|improve this question
  • related judaism.stackexchange.com/q/17381/759 – Double AA♦ Aug 6 '12 at 23:22
  • 1
    not sure if that's really related, to me this question is more along the lines of tartei d'sasrei, not of an ashkenazi person using a mitzvah item that was created along sefardishe rules – not-allowed to change my name Aug 7 '12 at 0:35
  • vram, you have to assume they are kosher independently before you can ask about the tarti desatri. – Double AA♦ Aug 7 '12 at 3:41
7

As noted in another answer of mine:

Tzitz Eliezer 14:3:4 permits post facto even Sta"m that was written with a mix of Vellish and Ashkenazi. Igrot Moshe OC 5:2 also permits other forms of writing but he is quick to point out that it is better to stick to one's custom on the matter.

|improve this answer
  • 4
    Why the downvote? If they're good on the same klaf they should be ok in different doorways. – Double AA♦ Aug 7 '12 at 2:37
  • ...and if one should preferably stick to his own custom then the same should be true for all doorways. (+1 from me.) – msh210♦ Aug 7 '12 at 18:58
-2

BS"D

Halakhicly speaking it is fine. Since in the time of Hhazal there were no such cultural/ethnic divisions, no ruling (that I know of) was made on this matter.

Nor is this to be found in the earliest halakhic codifications (ie. Sepher Ha-Halakhoth of the RIF and Mishneh Torah of the RaMBaM)

It is also interesting as a side question as to what other ethnic groups like Mizrahim and Chabashim would do if they could not get mezuzoth according to their mesora and were faced with a "Ashkenazi or Sephardi" situation I assume they would take the irritating Israeli approach of "if their not from Ashkenaz their Sephardi" OR should they mix?

|improve this answer
  • 1
    −1. Not everything halacha says not to do is found in chazal. What would you answer to "Can one eat corn on Pesach?"? – msh210♦ Aug 7 '12 at 6:12
  • BS"D It would have to be in Hhazal otherwise it wouldn't be halakha, or at least not binding halakha which in its self is a contradiction. Yes one can eat corn on peasah since there is no torah prohibition nor did a Sanhedrin rule against it BUT one does not have to for the exact same reason. – Qoheleth Aug 7 '12 at 6:41
  • 4
    @msh210 I think you two are having a semantic argument about the word 'halacha'. – Double AA♦ Aug 7 '12 at 12:18
  • Exactly what i was thinking at work. – Qoheleth Aug 8 '12 at 0:39
  • Rashi, the Ba'alei Tosafot, and other Ashkenazi Rishonim do discuss the forms of the letters in depth. This is why the Mechaber codifies a variant of Ashkenazi k'tav as "Beit Yosef." Similarly, the Rambam does mention certain tzurot haotiot in his "Hilchot Sifrei Torah, Tefillin, uMezuzot" in Sefer Ahavah. – Noach MiFrankfurt Jan 10 '17 at 4:10

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .