If a father must carry the sins & punishments of his son (under bar mitzva) as we know he does from the brocha of "Baruch Shepatrani Meonshin shel zeh" does he — and if not, why doesn't he — "carry" his sons mitzvos and get schar (reward). If he is fully responsible for his son in one factor, why not in everything else?

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    MosheY, this question would be more valuable if you would bring a source that the father carries the sins (as opposed to the education responsibility) as well as a source that he does not "carry" the mitzvos.
    – YDK
    Jul 26, 2012 at 3:40
  • Note that this berakha is not unanimous. R. Qafih, for example was opposed to saying it, (besides for the fact that like Rambam Teimonim generally consider such post-Talmudic berakhot to be blessings in vain), as the idea it is predicated upon; that parents are punished for children's actions, is simply wrong.
    – mevaqesh
    Aug 23, 2017 at 2:37

1 Answer 1


Actually, the father (and mother) do carry the Mitzvos; they get rewarded for their children's good deeds. Not only before but after their children's bar/Bat Mitzva as well.

And that is the reason for orphans saying Kaddish; every Mitzva they do is credited to their parents. The Kitzur Shulchan Aruch recommends that a person's will should include the request for his kids to "shine" in a specific Mitzva, so that he can be credited for years of that Mitzva being done.

For that matter, if you're responsible for any person doing a Mitzva then you get some reward for that Mitzva.

On the flip side, if you're responsible for any person doing a sin then you get some punishment for that sin. If so, why the "Baruch Shepatrani Meonshin shel zeh"? Because until Bar Mitzva, a father gets punished for not educating his children; after bar Mitzva it becomes the child's responsibility to educate himself, and he can no longer blame his sins on the deficient education his parents gave him.


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