1

R' Luria's acronym is the AR"I. The Hebrew of that roughly translates to Godly Rabbi Isaac. Why is he called Godly, and many other great rabbis are not?

Related: Why refer to Isaac Luria as the Arizal, and not Arizatzal?

closed as off-topic by mevaqesh, DonielF, sabbahillel, rikitikitembo, mbloch Dec 26 '17 at 4:31

This question appears to be off-topic. The users who voted to close gave this specific reason:

  • "This question does not appear to be about Judaism within the scope defined in the help center. Note that not all questions about the Hebrew language, about history or news of the Jewish people, about Jewish individuals, or about the State of Israel are necessarily about Judaism." – mevaqesh, DonielF, sabbahillel, rikitikitembo, mbloch
If this question can be reworded to fit the rules in the help center, please edit the question.

  • Why the downvote? – Adam Mosheh Jul 16 '12 at 1:59
1

I'm not sure the word means 'Godly' in the sense you are taking it. You seem to be taking in in the sense of 'the one similar to God,' while I think it might be meant to be taken as 'the God expert,' which would explain why the term is exclusively applied to him.

  • Even so, then the Ramchal who wrote Derech Hashem could also be a God expert. – Adam Mosheh Jul 16 '12 at 0:02
  • @AdamMosheh "Ri" was already taken by the Ri of Orleans, so the Ari had to come up with another initial to put in there; Ramchal, on the other hand, was not already taken. – b a Jul 16 '12 at 1:15
  • 1
    How would that explain its exclusivity? – Double AA Dec 3 '13 at 17:40

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .