According to those who observe the custom of reciting the passage of VeYiten Lekha on Motzaei Shabbat before or after Havdalah, what should one do if s/he forgot to recite it? I have never seen anyone recite this section after that time (e.g., not on Monday morning), so is there no such thing as tashlumin (make-up) for this if one missed it?

A friend of mine suggested to me that maybe it is like Keriyat Shema, and that there is nothing wrong with just reading pesukim, because it is just like learning Torah.

  • 1
    Well, I think your friend is on to something. But what makes you think you need to do anything? What does one do if he forgets to say 'Aleinu or LeDavid?
    – Seth J
    Commented Jun 13, 2012 at 21:39
  • 1
    It seems to me that there is no way to make it up, because with Shmoneh Esreh, you can make it up if you forgot to say it. The Shulchan Aruch rules that you can do the same with Asher Yatzar, but all the acharonim disagree. It is implied (by the Shu"A not ruling the same way for other cases) that he thinks Asher Yatzar is the only case where you could do it. It comes out using this reasoning that everyone agrees that you can't make it up. On the other hand, VeYiten Lecha is connected to havdalah, so shouldn't its law be connected, i.e. that you can say it until Tuesday, just like havdalah?
    – b a
    Commented Jun 14, 2012 at 0:21
  • 1
    @AdamMosheh de-jargonify Commented Jun 14, 2012 at 3:49
  • 2
    @ShmuelBrin @HodofHod AdamMosheh: What if we just call it Saturday night and forget about it?` That is definitely the least jargon-y we could be.
    – Double AA
    Commented Jun 14, 2012 at 15:47
  • 1
    @msh210 Motzash is definitely a popular Israeli acronym. But even so, I stand by my previous comment.
    – Double AA
    Commented Jun 14, 2012 at 16:08

1 Answer 1


Based on my observation of what people do in general (and instructions in machzorim), they do not say "V'yiten l'cha" after the end of a yom tov which is Sunday (or Sunday and Monday, or Shabas and Sunday), nor on motzae Shabas which is yom tov. Thus, it seems to me that there is no make-up for "V'yiten l'cha". Of course, one can distinguish that case from the case in which one neglected to say it, but absent other evidence I think this is pretty telling. (I do look forward to other evidence, though, in other answers.)


You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .