In Vayikra 19:27 the verse says:

לֹ֣א תַקִּ֔פוּ פְּאַ֖ת רֹֽאשְׁכֶ֑ם וְלֹ֣א תַשְׁחִ֔ית אֵ֖ת פְּאַ֥ת זְקָנֶֽךָ׃

It means both peyos on the head, yet in Vayikra 23:22 the verse says:

וּֽבְקֻצְרְכֶ֞ם אֶת־קְצִ֣יר אַרְצְכֶ֗ם לֹֽא־תְכַלֶּ֞ה פְּאַ֤ת שָֽׂדְךָ֙ בְּקֻצְרֶ֔ךָ וְלֶ֥קֶט קְצִֽירְךָ֖ לֹ֣א תְלַקֵּ֑ט לֶֽעָנִ֤י וְלַגֵּר֙ תַּֽעֲזֹ֣ב אֹתָ֔ם אֲנִ֖י יְהוָ֥ה אֱלֹֽהֵיכֶֽם׃

Here it means only one edge of the field. Why does pe'as by the hair of the head mean both sides yet by a field it means only one edge?

  • 1
    And in the first instance (by the beard) it means the 5 corners of the beard. It's clearly subjective by context.
    – Double AA
    May 4, 2012 at 16:58
  • To me it seems like a passed down mesora .In maakos 21 when discussing the beard and sideburns Rav Sheses pointed to the places as opposed to darshining a passuk for the 5 points.
    – sam
    May 4, 2012 at 17:04
  • I would think that the question is limited to the beard, as the head has only 1 edge that does a 360.
    – YDK
    May 6, 2012 at 4:40

1 Answer 1


The Sefer M'rafsin Igra V'yakel pg. 199 asks this question. Rav Moshe Brim and Rav Yair Yedidya Pacha answer and explain the reasoning of the mitzvah. They explain the issur of not leaving over a corner comes from the mitzvah of leaving over for the poor. Therefore if one would leave over four little corners or one big corner there would be no difference, as long as something was left over. The issur of rounding the corners come from the issur of chukas hagoyim therefore one gets the issur if he rounds one or both of them. (See inside the book for another answer by Rav Moshe Landau)

  • The essential answer makes sense- there is a violation for even 1 edge. I don't understand why the derivation is important.
    – YDK
    May 6, 2012 at 4:43

You must log in to answer this question.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged .