Psalms 31:6 in a Tanakh is beyadcha afkid ruchi, padita orti, adonai el emet. The same verse in an English Bible is at 31:5 because they skip what is 31:1 in a Tanakh. Which is correct?
In general the Jewish practice is to "number" the introduction of each Psalm, such as "Mizmor l"David/A Psalm of David", while the Christian practice is to begin the enumeration after the introductory phrases. Accordingly for most of the book of Psalms the Jewish enumeration of the verses is one different the Christian enumeration. This isn't a matter of English versus Hebrew. Jewish translations will follow the "Hebrew" count as well.
I will try to confirm that this is the correct explanation in this situation.
Which is correct?
The Torah comes comes directly from the Creator of the universe, without any burnished, it is completely perfect and infinite in every way imaginable
The "bible" in the other hand is written by a bunch of heathen idolators who don't know anything any anything
So it would be more logical to conclude that whatever the Toyruh says, is in fact true, no matter what, and whatever idolators who don't know anything about anything say, is in fact not true
some people are confused with how this answer the question, the actual question is
"Which is correct?", The Toyruh or the bible? It doesn't ask for an elaborate explanation of why different numbering systems are used, it only asks which of the two is correct
Blessings and success