Psalms 31:6 in a Tanakh is beyadcha afkid ruchi, padita orti, adonai el emet. The same verse in an English Bible is at 31:5 because they skip what is 31:1 in a Tanakh. Which is correct?

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    – Isaac Moses
    May 18, 2010 at 2:48

2 Answers 2


In general the Jewish practice is to "number" the introduction of each Psalm, such as "Mizmor l"David/A Psalm of David", while the Christian practice is to begin the enumeration after the introductory phrases. Accordingly for most of the book of Psalms the Jewish enumeration of the verses is one different the Christian enumeration. This isn't a matter of English versus Hebrew. Jewish translations will follow the "Hebrew" count as well.

I will try to confirm that this is the correct explanation in this situation.

  • 2
    It is indeed. The first pasuk of Psalm 31 is למנצח מזמור לדוד, "For the conductor, a psalm by David." So yes, the KJV and other non-Jewish versions don't count this as a verse. (There are even chapters of Tehillim where the count is off by two, because the heading is two pesukim long - for example, chs. 52, 54, and 60.)
    – Alex
    May 18, 2010 at 3:53
  • 1
    Sometimes, the introduction is only part of the first verse (e.g. Psalms 23 and 29), in which case the numbering is the same even though there's an introduction.
    – Chanoch
    May 18, 2010 at 13:59


Which is correct?

The Torah comes comes directly from the Creator of the universe, without any burnished, it is completely perfect and infinite in every way imaginable

The "bible" in the other hand is written by a bunch of heathen idolators who don't know anything any anything

So it would be more logical to conclude that whatever the Toyruh says, is in fact true, no matter what, and whatever idolators who don't know anything about anything say, is in fact not true


some people are confused with how this answer the question, the actual question is

"Which is correct?", The Toyruh or the bible? It doesn't ask for an elaborate explanation of why different numbering systems are used, it only asks which of the two is correct

Blessings and success

  • Hmm any reason for the miraculous downvote? Mar 9, 2021 at 15:22
  • 1
    The question is about numbering convention. The existing answer addresses this directly and productively. This answer seems to assume that the question is about some deeper matter of Truth, which doesn't strike me as helpful for this question. (Also, at least with regard to chapter numbers, the numbering we conventionally use is actually Christian in origin itself. I don't know who started numbering the verses within chapters or when, but it seems doubtful that this is something that came from Sinai.)
    – Isaac Moses
    Mar 9, 2021 at 15:25
  • @isaac the question is "what's true, the bible or the Torah"? Obviously the answer is whatever the Toyruh says, whatever numbering convention it uses, is the true one Mar 9, 2021 at 15:29
  • If you have a source to indicate that the numbering conventionally used for Tehilim is from the Torah, I recommend you include it in your answer. I do not think this is either true or obvious, and I think this answer, as it stands, is therefore counterproductive with respect to this question.
    – Isaac Moses
    Mar 9, 2021 at 15:30
  • @isaac see edit. The tehillim is the Toyruh, the fact that it's accepted by the entire people of Yisroyayl makes it the Torah, we sing have to answer to goyeesh sources Mar 9, 2021 at 15:32

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