My family is not frum, and my grandfather gives out money to all the grandchildren at our seder. I refused the money, but my father took it and put it in my room. Can I use this money?

  • 3
    a non halachik gut reaction -- your grandfather has declared this money no longer in his property. once the holiday is over and you "find" it and know that no one will be claiming it (it is not lost thus needing to be returned), why can't you use it? you didn't take possession on yom tov. but that's just off the cuff.
    – rosends
    Apr 11, 2012 at 2:25

1 Answer 1


Seems like it should be no worse than the case where a Jew deliberately violates Shabbos by cooking food, where someone else is allowed to eat that food as soon as Shabbos ends (Shulchan Aruch, Orach Chaim 307:1).

[Taz (:1) and Shach (:2) say that the reason why in this case we don't require waiting after Shabbos for the time it takes for the melachah to be performed (as is true if a non-Jew did it, whether you instructed him to do so or not - ibid. 307:20 and 515:1) is because if you tell a Jew to do a melachah, he won't listen. So it is possible that a Jew who is not (as of yet) Shabbos-observant would be in the same category as a non-Jew for this purpose; even if so, though, then the latter rule would apply - the object does become permitted following a (short) delay after Shabbos ends.]

(CYLOR, of course.)

  • But here it was done specifically for someone else, so it might be assur to both of them forever (assuming a de'oraita, which is probably not the case here)
    – Double AA
    Apr 11, 2012 at 15:15
  • @DoubleAA: no, because the case in 307:20 is where the Jew specifically asks the non-Jew to do something for him, and even then it's permitted after Shabbos + the amount of time it would take to do it. How much more so here, where Sean didn't ask his father to do it (plus, as you said, here we're dealing with a derabanan violation anyway, not a Torah-level one).
    – Alex
    Apr 11, 2012 at 17:36

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