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According to the opinion that Queen Esther was married to Mordechai.
Achashveirosh was looking for unmarried girls (Esther 2:2–4). Why did he take a married woman? Especially considering that Queen Esther was not looking to get married, why didn't she just make her marital state public?
It is possible that, though the idea as originally outlined for the king by his advisers did in fact include the criterion of 'besulot', when the king issued the edict that criterion was omitted. Hence we do not find it listed in 2:8 and on, where it lists נְעָרוֹת alone:
וַיְהִי, בְּהִשָּׁמַע דְּבַר-הַמֶּלֶךְ וְדָתוֹ, וּבְהִקָּבֵץ נְעָרוֹת רַבּוֹת אֶל-שׁוּשַׁן הַבִּירָה, אֶל-יַד הֵגָי
I know this isn't the most geshmake answer, but Ibn Ezra (2:7 - p. 8 here) is clearly bothered by a similar question and says that perhaps the drasha that Mordechai took Esther for a wife doesn't mean that he actually married her, but that such was his intention. (I would add that in order to keep all the drashos one would have to conclude that he had at least betrothed her, otherwise one would not be able to substantiate the drasha of כאשר אבדתי אבדתי - from where Chazal derive that with her willful relations with Achashverosh she became forbidden to Mordechai.)
Assuming we are translating besulah as 'unmarried' I would further assume that they kept their marriage quiet lest she become unmarried by dint of the king killing her husband. This seems to be a pervasive concern as it crops up by Avraham and Yitzchak.
Furthermore it would seem that the marriage was kept quiet even amongst the Jewish people, otherwise it would be hard to understand how the king (and Haman) was unable to determine her background considering she was married to a member of the Sanhedrin.
Source: My own conjecture
