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This is a grammatical/ pronunciation question that I'd appreciate to get help with.

Sometimes patach is read as kholam. Example: writen as vayashav read as vayashouv[Bereshit 37,29]. Can anyone explain for me whats the gramatical law behind this. Ty

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    Are you confusing patach and kamatz?
    – Double AA ♦
    Commented Aug 6 at 17:58
  • You’re confusing Kamatz with Patach. This specific type of Kamatz is called a “Kamatz Kattan”. It’s technically a completely different vowel from the “normal” Kamatz, called “Kamatz Gadol”.
    – Qwertrl
    Commented Oct 10 at 20:52

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The verse quoted is Bereshis 37:29-30: the requested word is

וַיָּ֤שׇׁב

with kamatz under ש. The kamatz does not have stress, and is known as kamatz katan, or a short vershion of kholam in the Babylonian pronunciation adopted by sephardim. It's "o" as dog/fog for Brittish and or/oil/own for American speakers.

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    It’s 37:29 (or 30), and version has no h
    – J. W. Tanner
    Commented Aug 6 at 23:44
  • Thanks. Corrected.
    – Y DJ
    Commented Aug 7 at 4:36
  • The Palestinian pronunciation, not the Babylonian one. The Babylonian pronunciation is what Yemenite vowels are based on.
    – Qwertrl
    Commented Aug 8 at 13:35
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    In America, “dog” and “fog” have a more open vowel, close to “a”. A better comparison for Americans would be “or”, “oil”, “own”, or any other word with “o” followed by a semi-consonant.
    – Qwertrl
    Commented Aug 8 at 13:38
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    Even better is just not assuming everyone here is American
    – Double AA ♦
    Commented Aug 8 at 14:03

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